Certification Mile2-Security de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen ml0-320, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ml0-320

Nom d'Examen: Mile2-Security (certified penetration testing professional)

Questions et réponses: 149 Q&As

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NO.1 Mary has learned about the different ways authentication can be implemented on a web site.
Which of the following forms of authentication would consist of the most basic form
and also the less secure?
A. Digest Authentication
B. Basic Authentication
C. LDAP Authentication
D. Token Base Authentication
Answer: A

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NO.2 When talking about databases search query languages,commands such as
Select,Update,Insert,Grant,and Revoke would all the part of what language?
A. C++
B. SQL
C. Python
D. Perl
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following SQL script will cause the SQL server to cease operations?
A. NET STOP SQLSERVER -
B. OR 1=1; CLOSE WITHNOWAIT;
C. NET STOP SQLSERVERAGENT -
D. SHUTDOWN WITH NOWAIT;-
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following penetration framework is Open Source and offers features that
are similar to some of its rival commercial tools?
A. CANVAS
B. CORE IMPACT
C. METASPLOIT
D. DEEP HOLE
Answer: C

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NO.5 One of the last steps taken by an attacker will be to configure permanent access to a
compromised system.
However, the installation of a backdoor, installation of new processes,and changes to key
files could be very quickly detected by an administrator.
What tool would assist the attacker in preventing the administrator from detecting
changes to files,new processes that are running,or other signs that the system might have
been compromised?
A. A Trojan horse
B. A Rootkit
C. A Backdoor
D. A privilege escalation tool
Answer: B

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NO.6 Yannick who is a very smart security tester has mentioned to one of his friends that he
has found a way of appending data to an existing file using the built in Windows tools
and no third party utility.
This text appended does not affect the functionality,size,or display within traditional file
browsing utilities such as dir or Internet Explorer.What is Yannick making reference to in
this case?
A. Steganography
B. Hybrid Encryption
C. Alternate Data Streams
D. Append.exe
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following password and encyption cracking methods is guaranteed to
successfully crack any password or encryption algorithm?
A. Dictionary
B. Hybrid
C. Brute Force
D. RainbowCrack
Answer: B

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NO.8 This document is a high level document that describes management intentions towards
security.What is the name of the document?
A. Procedures
B. Guidelines
C. Policies
D. Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following are reasons why fragment-based port scans are often used by
attackers?Choose two.
A. Simple non-stateful packet filtering devices can sometimes be bypassed
B. Reassembling fragmented packets is not time or processor intensive
C. RFC 1121 requires that all routers pass fragmented packets
D. Firewalls may be configured for high throughput and thus dont reassemble and inspect
fragmented packets
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 What technology is often used by employees to get access to web sites that are blocked by
their corporate proxy server?Choose the best Answer:.
A. DNS spoofing
B. ARP poisoning
C. Anonymizers
D. BASIC web authentication
Answer: C

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Certification FileMaker de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen FM0-305, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: FM0-305

Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 11)

Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two features require indexing in order to work? (Choose two.)
A. List function
B. Dynamic subsummary reports
C. Auto-complete using existing values
D. Dynamic value lists based on FileMaker tables
E. Add Leading Group by <field name> in Table View
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Consider a FileMaker Pro 11 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: BE

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NO.3 Given a text field Full Name, Auto-Enter by Calculated value has been selected in field options, using
the following formula:
name First & " " & Name Last
The developer then disables (unchecks) the option Do not replace existing value of field (if any).
for which two cases will the results of the specified formula be inserted into the field Full Name? (Choose
two.)
A. when the record is first created
B. when the field Full Name itself is modified
C. only when the field Full Name was previously empty
D. when either of the fields Name First or Name Last are modified
E. when the field Full Name itself is modified and the record is committed
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Given the following Relationships Graph for a FileMaker 11 database, where Employee, Manager, and
Trainer are all table occurrences sharing the same source table:
Assuming the relevant fields also exist in these tables, which two sets of data can be shown in portals
without modifying the graph? (Choose two.)
A. a portal of trainers that have taught their own manager
B. a portal of students that have not enrolled in a class
C. a portal showing a non-repeating list of courseware titles taught by a trainer
D. a portal of the classes that have been attended by a trainer's direct reports
E. a portal of classes in which a manager enrolled with one or more of the manager's direct reports
Answer: CD

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NO.5 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what is known about this database?
A. There are no records in the Event table at this time.
B. The Event table occurrence references a table from an external ODBC data source.
C. There can be zero or one, but no more than one, Event record related to any Task record.
D. The corner arrows indicate all three table occurrences reference tables from external data sources.
E. From a layout based on the Event table occurrence, a portal could be drawn showing both related Task
and Volunteer data.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Given a text field myText that contains "<color>blue</color>", which formula extracts the word "blue"
from the field?
A. Filter (myText ; "color")
B. MiddleWords (myText ; 2)
C. PatternMatch (myText ; "blue")
D. Middle ( myText ; Position ( myText ; "blue" ; 1 ; 1 ) ;4)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Consider two FileMaker files, Collection and Item, where tables from Item are included in the
Relationships Graph of Collection.
Which method will preserve all functionality in the Relationships Graph of Collection after renaming the
Item file to Artifact?
A. delete referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and recreate them
for Artifact
B. click the Repair Reference button in the Relationships Graph for Collection and reset the file path
C. choose File > Manage > External Data Sources... for Collection and reset the file path
D. select referenced Item table occurrences in the Relationships Graph for Collection and right-click to
choose Rename File Source...
E. choose the File > Recover... menu in FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced, select the Collection file, then
choose Repair References under Advanced Recover Options
Answer: C

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NO.8 A new database is created with two tables, Client and Contracts. The only modification made on the
Relationships Graph is to establish a relationship between them which is set to delete related records in
Contracts when a record in Client is deleted.
What happens when the Client table occurrence is deleted from the Relationships Graph?
A. Since it is the only occurrence of the Client table on the graph, it can not be deleted.
B. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records are deleted.
C. The formula in the calculation field Name Full (defined as Name First & " " & Name Last) will be broken.
D. Any records in the Contracts table that were related to matching Client records will have values in the
Client ID field deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 11 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.10 A table in a FileMaker Pro 11 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. The user will see the custom error message, but the import will continue if the user overrides the error.
C. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
D. The user will see the custom error message, but in the case of an import, overriding the error is not
allowed and no records are imported.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 11 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

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NO.12 A Text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 11 is set to auto-enter the following formula:
FirstName & LastName.
FirstName and LastName are Text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all referenced
fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
C. each time the value of the FirstName or LastName field is modified
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastName field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: AE

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NO.13 Which three are directly selectable options in the Validation tab of the field options dialog in FileMaker
Pro 11? (Choose three.)
A. Existing value
B. Member of value list
C. Strict data type: Integer
D. Strict data type: Time of Day
E. Strict data type: Alphanumeric
F. Minimum number of characters
Answer: ABD

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NO.14 Which script trigger could provide the functionality to prevent invalid data from being committed while
allowing the ability to revert the record?
A. OnObjectSave
B. OnObjectExit
C. OnObjectModify
D. OnObjectValidate
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 11? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both.
Answer: DE

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NO.16 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 11 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
B. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
C. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
D. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of join criteria can be used.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: BE

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NO.17 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may be indexed.
B. All non-text data types are converted to text.
C. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation.
D. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL.
E. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-305   FM0-305

NO.18 Which three FileMaker Pro 11 objects will display data contents even when unrelated to the current
layout's table occurrence? (Choose three.)
A. Merge variable
B. Indexed Timestamp field
C. A Text field from a shadow table
D. Globally stored Calculation field
E. Globally stored Number field placed in a portal
F. A Container field defined with the Store as reference only option enabled
Answer: ADE

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NO.19 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 11 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.20 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event ID has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID.
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records... nor the Delete
related records... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: VCP-310

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI3)

Questions et réponses: 435 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following conditions can prevent a virtual machine (VM) that is part of a VMware HA
cluster from being powered on? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Guaranteed admission control cannot allocate sufficient CPU reservation for the VM.
B. The VM has been configured with a virtual disk on local storage.
C. Strict admission control is configured and insufficient resources are available for the VM.
D. There is a mismatch in CPU capabilities between one or more HA cluster nodes.
Answer: BC

VMware   VCP-310   VCP-310

NO.2 Which of the following files are part of a typical virtual machine?
Select 3 response(s).
A. Virtual Disk File (.vmdk)
B. Configuration File (.vmx)
C. VMotion Transfer File (.vmt)
D. Hardware File (.svr)
E. BIOS File (.nvram)
Answer: ABE

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NO.3 Which two conditions can cause a combined VMware DRS/HA cluster to change to a red status?
(Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The current failover capacity is smaller than the configured capacity.
B. All the primary hosts in the cluster are not responding.
C. A DRS-only host has been added to an HA cluster.
D. DRS is in the process of balancing resources among hosts in the cluster when an HA event occurs.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 What are two advantages of VCB over conventional agent-based methods of backing up a virtual
machine's (VM's) data? (Choose Two)
A. helps to eliminate the need for a backup window by using an online, snapshot-based backup
B. makes it possible to do both file-based and full-system backup of the same VM simultaneously
C. enables LAN-free backup and avoids undue overloading of the datacenter network
D. allows selection of files and directories from the guest file system of any VM
Answer: AC

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NO.5 How does ESX Server 3.5 differ from VMware Server 2?
Select the best response.
A. ESX Server 3.5 supports virtual machine clusters on the host server and VMware Server 2 does not.
B. ESX Server 3.5 accesses SAN storage and VMware Server 2 does not.
C. ESX Server 3.5 supports up to 128 GB of RAM and VMware Server 2 does not.
D. ESX Server 3.5 deploys a virtual machine from a template and VMware Server 2 does not.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use ESX Server 3.x instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines.
B. VMware Server 2 does not support running virtual machines in a production environment.
C. The company wants the ability to use VMotion.
D. ESX Server 3.x offers better resource management and better performance.
Answer: CD

VMware   VCP-310   VCP-310

NO.7 Which statement is true about VCB proxy?
Select the best response.
A. It must be set to assign Windows drive letters to prevent data corruption.
B. It must be set to prevent assignment of Windows drive letters to prevent data corruption.
C. When running under Linux, it has no concept of Windows drive letter mappings.
D. It assigns Windows drive letters to Raw Device Mapped LUNs that are assigned to Windows virtual
machines.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The users will use the software to edit memory settings after the virtual machine is installed.

NO.9 These machines WILL be run in production and WILL be used or managed remotely.
What is the correct solution based on these criteria?
Select the best response.
A. give the users VMware VirtualCenter Client 2.x and grant them permission to create virtual machines
on an ESX Server 3.x, with access to all necessary operating system ISOs
B. give the users VMware Workstation 6.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
C. give the users VMware Server 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
D. give the users VMware Player 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
Answer: A

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4. Which of the following is a benefit of ESX Server 3i over ESX Server?
Select the best response.
A. Increased Security and Reliability
B. Memory Overcommitment
C. Improved Fault Isolation
D. Dynamic Resource Allocation
Answer: A

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5. How does ESX Server 3.x differ from VMware Server?
A. ESX Server 3.x supports 64-bit guest operating systems and VMware Server 2.x does not.
B. ESX Server 3.x supports VMware VirtualCenter and VMware Server 2.x does not.
C. ESX Server 3.x supports Intel Virtualization Technology (VT) and VMware Server 2.x does not.
D. ESX Server 3.x supports 4 processor Virtual SMP and VMware Server 2.x does not.
Answer: D

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6. How does VMware Server 2 differ from ESX Server 3.5?
Select the best response.
A. VMware Server 2 supports legacy operating systems and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
B. VMware Server 2 enhances software development and testing and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
C. VMware Server 2 runs on a Linux host and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
D. VMware Server 2 supports up to 128 GB of RAM and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A company decides to explore virtualization options for one of their departments. Their environment
and requirements are:
1. The users should be able to create their own virtual machines
2. The users are running Windows XP on their desktops.
3. Several virtual machines will be set up for each user and they should be able to run them all at the
same time.

NO.11 Which of the following situations will result in VMware HA restarting virtual machines? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. An ESX Server in the cluster becomes isolated from the network.
B. A guest OS is manually powered off.
C. A guest OS fails.
D. An ESX Server in the cluster is put into Maintenance mode.
Answer: AC

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NO.12 An ESX Administrator is configuring a VMware High Availability Cluster for three hosts and their
resident VMs. The HA cluster will be configured to support a single host failure and resource
considerations must be enforced during a failover event. To accomplish this task:
Select the best response.
A. Each host in the cluster must be able to accommodate the VM with the highest CPU limit value
B. There must be enough cluster resources based on memory and CPU reservations to account for any
potential host failure
C. Each host in the cluster must be able to accommodate the VM with the largest configured available
memory
D. All potential remaining hosts during a failure event must be able to accommodate the sum total of all
VMs' available memory configurations
Answer: B

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NO.13 In configuring a VMware HA Cluster the System Administrator can configure Admission Control.
There are two options: Do not power on Virtual Machines if they violate availability constraints, or Allow
Virtual Machines to be powered on even if they violate availability constraints. If the System
Administrator chooses the option "Do not power on Virtual Machines if they violate availability constraints"
then which of the following apply? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMware HA enforces the failover capacity defined for the cluster.
B. Only Virtual Machines with a high restart priority will be restarted on surviving ESX hosts.
C. VMware HA restarts VM's on surviving host with the most unreserved capacity.
D. Virtual Machines running on failed ESX hosts will not be restarted on surviving ESX hosts.
Answer: AC

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NO.14 What is the advantage of installing backup client software in a Linux virtual machine's guest OS?
Select the best response.
A. This configuration enables immediate booting from a restored virtual machine.
B. This configuration enables LAN-free backup.
C. This configuration enables ESX Server to do backup and restore operations.
D. This configuration enables individual files to be selected for backup or restore.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Virtual machine performance and high availability are more important than keeping costs low.

NO.16 Which of the following are required for installing VMware Consolidated Backup? (Choose Two)
A. the server must be a physical machine
B. the operating system must be Windows
C. the server can be a physical or a virtual machine
D. the operating system can be Windows or Linux
Answer: BC

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NO.17 What are two characteristics of VMware Consolidated Backup? (Choose Two)
A. LAN-free backups of virtual machines can be performed
B. A plugin integrates the VCB UI into VirtualCenter
C. Image-level backups of virtual machines can be performed
D. File-level backups of Windows and Linux virtual machines can be performed
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Which of the following products are part of the VMware Infrastructure 3 software suite?
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMware Virtual Desktop Manager
B. VMware Distributed Resource Scheduler
C. VMware Update Manager
D. VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: BC

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NO.19 For a cluster with two ESX hosts, one using Intel processors and other using AMD processors, which
of the following statements is true? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMotion can move live VMs from one host to another
B. VMware DRS can load balance live VMs among hosts
C. Storage VMotion can move a virtual machine disk file from one storage device to another
D. VMware HA can failover VMS from one host to another in case of a host failure
Answer: CD

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NO.20 Which of the following are requirements for a VMware HA cluster? (Choose Two)
A. a private Ethernet network for all hosts
B. access to shared storage from all hosts
C. access to the virtual machine networks from all hosts
D. identical type and quantity of CPUs in each host
Answer: BC

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 (Private Beta))

Questions et réponses: 288 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.6 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.12 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.14 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.18 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.19 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 管理者は物理サ ーバーに ESX 4.x を゗ンストールしています。
正常な゗ンストールをサポートするために、 次のコンポーネントのどれが変更されるま たは
交換される必要があるでしょうか。
A. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
B. SATA disk controller
C. 1GB RAM
D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
Answer: C

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NO.2 管理者は、 SAN から起動する 10 台の ESX 4.x ホストのために、 VMFS および vmkcore パ
ーテゖションを提供する単一の SAN ボリュームを設定しています。
vmkcore パーテゖションが 10 台のホストを サポートするために、このボリューム上に存在
する必要がある最小サ゗ズはどのくらいですか。
A. vmkcore パーテゖシ ョンは、ローカルストレージに格納する必要があります
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 500MB
Answer: B

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NO.3 次の機能のうち どれが vSphere Advanced Edition の一部ではな いのですか。
A. VMware High Availability
B. VMware Fault Tolerance
C. VMware DRS
D. VMware vShield Zones
Answer: C

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NO.4 次のタスクのど れが ESXi ホストのホーム· ページから選択することができますか （三つ
選んでください）??。
A. このホストの゗ンベントリのデータストゕを閲覧します。
B. vSphere 4 のドキュ メントを表示します
C. VMware vCenter Server をダウンロードします
D. VMware Web Access Client をダウンロード します。
E. このホストの゗ンベントリ内の仮想マシンを閲覧します。
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 ESX 4.x の゗ンストールを実行するときは、 サービス? コンソール? フゔ゗ル? システ ムの
有効な場所は次のどれですか（二つ選んでください）?? 。
A. 共有 VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
B. SAN デゖスク上の ESX ホストのみにマスクされた VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デ
ゖスク内。
C. ローカルストレー ジにある ext3 フゔ゗ルシステム内。
D. ローカルストレー ジ上の VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖ スク内。
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 ESXi 4.x のデフォルト? スワップパーテゖションのサ゗ズは、次のどれですか。
A. 544MB
B. 4GB
C. 600MB
D. 1.6GB
Answer: B

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NO.7 管理者は、 サー ビスコンソールのメモリ要件を増加させる ESX 4.x ホスト上でサポート
される追加コンポーネントを゗ンストールする予定です。
この゗ンストールを実行することについて次のどれが本当ですか（二つ選んでください） 。
A.ESX ホストのメモリには、 CLI を使用して調整する必要があり、 再起動の必要がありません。
B.vmkcore パーテゖションは、追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
C. ホストのメモリは、vSphere Client または CLI を使用して調整する必要があるでしょう。そ
して、ESX ホストは再起動する必要があります。
D. スワップパーテゖションが追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 vCenter Server 4.x を゗ンストールする場合、 ラ゗センスはどこで維持されますか （二つ
選んでください） 。
A. ESXi ホ スト上
B. ラ゗センスサーバ ー内
C. vCenter Server デー タベースで
D. vCenter Server マシ ンのラ゗センスフゔ゗ル内
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 次のストレージ· リソースのどれが ESX 4.x の゗ンストール時のみに作成されています
か（二つ選んでください） 。
A. vmkcore
B. swap
C. VMFS datastore
D. scratch
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 ゕドバンスラ゗ センスで使用できるソケットあたりのコゕの最大数は何ですか。
A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: DP-021W

Nom d'Examen: Veritas (Design of Data Protection Solutions for Windows using NetBackup 5.0)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which major shift in business direction most significantly affects for the highest levels of
Data Protection?
A. customer self-service Web applications
B. staff reduction
C. automated workgroup processes
D. revenue recognition
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?
A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups
D. incremental backups
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your current Netbackup environment uses a tape library capable of holding 500 tapes .
Each tape is capable of holding 40GB of data. You are putting in a new library with
modem drives capable of holding 300GB each. You want to have twice the total capacity
of your old library to meet future growth.
What is the minimum of tape slots you will need in your new library?
A. 80
B. 110
C. 140
D. 170
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media
server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
ServerA
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
media server
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three items are optional considerations in a Data Protection design? (Choose
three)
A using supported server platforms
B. using agents for databases
C. using mirror snapshots for backups
D. using a private backup network
Answer: BCD

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NO.6 In which case will the FlashBackup feature be of benefit?
A. a large Oracle database that contains lots of data
B. a server with file system that are 80% full, containing several million files each
C. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing old files
D. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing a few files, each several
hundred MB
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have already designed a proposed solution for a department's data protection
requirement. Now you want to validate the design with the department
Which change in the department's environment affects your design the most?
A. increased server memory capacity
B. upgrades the Master Server
C. increased distance between clients and servers
D. a dedicated backup network
Answer: D

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NO.8 Recovery Time Objectives address which element?
A. Databases must be recovered to the last fully committed transition.
B. Cold database backups must be performed every day.
C. The data in different applications may have different recovery requirements
D. Flat file and database are to be treated the same in terms of importance.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have analyzed the current configuration of a data protection environment.
You now need to determine your expectations for future growth.
Which type of analysis do you perform?
A. Gap Analysis
B. Storage Checkpoint analysis
C. GANTT chart analysis
D. PERT chart analysis
Answer: A

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NO.10 In reviewing the bpbkar logs on a NetBackup client to investigate slow backups it is
noticed that several drives are being backed up concurrently rather than sequentially.
Each of the logical drives is a partition on a single physical disk drive.
Which is disabled to avoid "disk thrashing" on this client and other similarly configured
clients?
A. multistreaming
B. True Image Restore
C. parallel backups
D. multiplexing
Answer: A

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NO.11 You have a Microsoft Windows 2003 client, which you want to add to the NetBackup
use VSP or NetBackup database options (for example, MSSQL,
Exchange, Oracle, and so on) on this client.
What would be the impact to downtime?
A. There will be two reboots required one reboot to load the VERITAS installer and one
reboot for NetBackup installation
B. There is no need for a reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed
C. There will be one reboot to load the VERITAS installer, but NetBackup will not
require a separate reboot.
D. There will be a need for NetBackup to be properly installed
Answer: B

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NO.12 You are determining the scope of a data protection solution. You have already
analyzedpreferences and deadlines.
Which two other items must be analyzed before you can provide a solution? (choose
two).
A. information in the SLA
B. network infrastructure
C. number of employees
D. number of tapes purchased
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 Your current environment consists of one master server, four media servers and five
hundred clients. Your company has planned to add an additional datacenter with the
capacity of housing an additional 1,000 clients.
Which three things are considered when planning the expansion of your backup
environment? (choose three)
A. the operating system version of clients
B. SAN infrastructure available
C. cooling capacity of new datacenter
D. network connectivity between the datacenters
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.15 A large number of Windows 2003 clients are failing with status code 11. it is suspected
that the snapshot process is failing. In reviewing the Activity Monitor logs it is found that
backups of certain clients are very slow. These clients host a large number of small files.
What NetBackup feature helps resolve this issue?
A. VNETD
B. VOPIED
C. multiplexing
D. multistreaming
Answer: C

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NO.16 You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
NetBackup.
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
A. bpexpdate
B. bpclntcmd
C. bptest
D. bpverify
Answer: B

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NO.17 When determining the required backup performance of a Data Protection design,
which three items should be determined? (choose three)
A. media server backup performance
B. network and SAN data rates
C. capacity of tape media
D. client backup windows
Answer: ABD

Veritas   DP-021W   DP-021W

NO.18 A system administrator has communicated an interest in using the NetBackup
FlashBackup feature of the Advanced Client. What key technical information must you
gather in order to know whether this feature would be appropriate.
A. number of files on the file system
B. frequency of backups needed
C. density of the tapes being used for backups
D. age of the files on the file system
Answer: A

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NO.19 A new file server is being added to your NetBackup 5.0 environment. It is being used to
store 1-GB 'product' data files for the marketing department. The marketing department
already has 6,000 product data files in place (5 TB of total disk space) and expects to add
about 500 product files per week for the next 30 weeks. After files are added they are
never edited or modified.
You have an SLA with Marketing that you will perform a full backup every Saturday,
and the backup must be performed between 12:01a.m Saturday and Noon Saturday (a
36-hour window)
Given this, what is the minimum network bandwidth you need to handle the full backup?
A. teamed 1-gigabit (168 MB/s)
B. single 1-gigabit (84 MB/s)
C. 100 base T (8.4 MB/s)
D. 10 base T (0.8 MB/s)
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
logical (software-related)
environmental
B. management failures
Logical (software-related)
environmental
C. SPDFA
logical(software-related)
environmental(software-related)
D. hardware failure
logical(software-related)
environmental
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: TB0-123

Nom d'Examen: Tibco (TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks 5 Certification Exam )

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two places the domain properties can be found? (Choose two.)
A.TIBCO_HOME/domain
B.TIBCO_HOME/administrator/domain
C.TIBCO_HOME/repository
D.TIBCO_HOME/designer/domain
E.TIBCO_HOME/tra/domain
Answer:BE

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NO.2 Click on the Exhibit button.
Which activity will this execution transfer to if an error occurs at the CheckInventory activity?
A.IncomingOrder
B.End
C.RespondNotAvailable
D.CatchInventory
E.CatchAllOthers
Answer:D

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NO.3 TIBCO Designer can create web services from which sources?
A.WSDL and Process Definition
B.SOAP RetrieveResource and Process Definition
C.JMS Queue Subscriber and WSDL
D.HTTP Receiver and JMS Queue Subscriber
Answer:A

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NO.4 How can a custom database driver be added to TIBCO Runtime Agent?
A.by using the TIBCO Configuration Tool
B.by using traDBConfig
C.by using the TIBCO Administrator GUI
D.by using the Domain Utility CLI
Answer:B

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NO.5 The Generic Adapter Configuration supports which three adapter services? (Choose three.)
A.Write to Adapter Socket
B.Remote Invocation
C.Respond to Adapter Request
D.Publication
E.Subscription
F.Request-Response
Answer:DEF

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NO.6 The JVM is crashing every time the ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks installer tries to start.
Which two steps should be taken? (Choose two.)
A.add the parameter -update JVM to the installer
B.check that the javahome directory contains bin/java.exe or bin/java
C.check that the network has access to sun.java.com
D.try running the installer using a different version of JVM
Answer:BD

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NO.7 Which software is necessary in order to manage ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks resources?
A.TIBCO Administrator and TIBCO EMS
B.TIBCO Repository Adapter and TIBCO EMS
C.TIBCO Runtime Agent and TIBCO Administrator
D.TIBCO Rendezvous and TIBCO Runtime Agent
Answer:C

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NO.8 When a transition is created, which condition type is used by default?
A.Success with Condition
B.Error
C.Otherwise
D.Success if No Matching Condition
E.Success
Answer:B

Tibco   TB0-123   TB0-123

NO.9 How do TIBCO Designer projects store trusted certificates?
A.in PKCS12 format
B.in PEM format
C.in PPK format
D.in PFX format
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which two settings can be changed from the "Configure runtime" option on the TIBCO Designer
Startup Panel Administration tab? (Choose two.)
A.transition line mode
B.maximum JVM heap size
C.user directory location
D.deployment target machine
Answer:BC

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NO.11 Which statement is true about the Load Full Project option in TIBCO Designer?
A.It loads only the referenced parts of the project.
B.It loads and validates the entire project in memory.
C.It makes working with the project faster.
D.It finds references to other projects in memory.
Answer:C

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NO.12 Which two steps must take place before a domain can be deleted? (Choose two.)
A.All deployed applications must be undeployed.
B.Any LDAP server used by the domain must be stopped.
C.All secondary servers must be deleted through TIBCO Domain Utility.
D.All administrators associated with the domain must be deleted.
Answer:AC

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NO.13 Which three actions can be taken directly from the Project tab in the TIBCO Designer startup panel?
(Choose three.)
A.Reopen Project
B.Add Users to Project
C.New Project From Template
D.Validate Project
E.New Empty Project
F.Deploy Project
Answer:ACE

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NO.14 Which tab of an activity contains the icon for the XPath formula builder?
A.Configuration tab
B.Input tab
C.Schema tab
D.Output tab
Answer:B

Tibco   TB0-123   TB0-123

NO.15 The transport parameters for a TIBCO Administrator domain have been changed.
Which two steps are now necessary? (Choose two.)
A.All applications deployed in the domain should be redeployed.
B.The Administrator Server and any secondary servers should be restarted.
C.The Domain Hawk Agents on each machine in the domain should be restarted.
D.The EAR file with the new transport parameters should be rebuilt.
Answer:BC

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NO.16 You wish to insert an activity into an ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks process.
Which TIBCO Designer menu should you use?
A.Project
B.Resources
C.Edit
D.Palettes
Answer:B

Tibco   TB0-123   TB0-123

NO.17 Which web server implementation is used by default in ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks?
A.Jetty
B.Tomcat
C.JBoss
D.GlassFish
Answer:B

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NO.18 For a Java class specified in an XML to Java Activity, which two characteristics are required? (Choose
two.)
A.It must be serializable.
B.It must implement Runnable Interface.
C.It must have a public default constructor.
D.It must have public methods for retrieving all data members.
Answer:AC

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NO.19 The installation registry consists of which two files? (Choose two.)
A.vpd.properties
B.history.xmi
C.install.properties
D.machine.xmi
E.vpd.properties.tibco.<systemName>
Answer:AE

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NO.20 Which two methods does ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks support for storing trusted certificates?
(Choose two.)
A.in a project
B.in an alias library
C.in PKCS12 format
D.in KeyStore format
E.in a design time library
Answer:AE

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Code d'Examen: 250-223

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for UNIX using NBU 5.0)

Questions et réponses: 203 Q&As

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NO.1 A Microsoft Windows or UNIX NetBackup client is installed.
Which two commands can be performed on the client to verify proper name resolution of a NetBackup
master server with an IP address of 192.168.1.1 named clientA? (Choose two.)
A. bpclntcmd -ip clientA
B. bpclntcmd -hn clientA
C. bpclntcmd -hn 192.168.1.1
D. bpclntcmd -ip 192.168.1.1
Answer: BD

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NO.2 You are installing a new NetBackup client that must communicate across a firewall to its master/media
server.
Which NetBackup 5.0 process helps reduce the number of ports that must be opened in the firewall?
A. inetd
B. bpcd
C. vnetd
D. firewalld
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are performing a custom client installation on a Microsoft Windows 2003 system.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. You can choose NOT to install VSP.
B. You can change the default port numbers.
C. You cannot add more than five media servers.
D. You can set a custom location for the NetBackup catalog.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Which two criteria can be used to expire physical media? (Choose two.)
A. date
B. media full
C. number of mounts
D. media moved to a new server
E. change the backup retention level
Answer: AC

Symantec   250-223   250-223 examen

NO.5 After installing the master server, which three daemons should be running if the installation was
successful? (Choose three.)
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 Which media server version can be upgraded directly to NetBackup 5.0?
A. 3.4
B. 4.0
C. 4.5
D. 4.7
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three catalogs are contained only on the master server? (Choose three.)
A. Class
B. Jobs
C. Devices
D. Image
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose two.)
A. A server license key must be installed on each media server.
B. All media server installations must be pushed from the master server.
C. All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator.
D. All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS.
Answer: AC

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NO.9 You want to restrict NetBackup administrative access to users logged into a particular media server.
How do you accomplish this?
A. add the media server name to the server list, and not the media server list
B. add the media server name to the media server list, and not the server list
C. add the media server name to both the server list and the media server list
D. remove the media server name from both the server list and the media server list
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are performing a local UNIX NetBackup client installation.
Which two actions does the install script perform? (Choose two.)
A. adds entries to the inetd configuration file
B. tests connections to other NetBackup clients
C. enters all media servers as SERVER entries to the vm.conf file
D. enters the master server as a SERVER entry to the bp.conf file
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from version 4.5 to version
5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 5.0 if their media server is on 5.0.
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0.
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 5.0 if the clients are on 4.5.
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at 4.5.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 How do you specify an exclude list for a single policy or schedule?
A. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude List Select the policy or schedule
B. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude list area type in the name of the policy or
schedule before the exclude list
C. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude List Exceptions to the Exclude List area
D. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Include List Exceptions to the Exclude List area
Answer: B

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NO.13 How many different backup image retention selections are available?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 24
D. 25
E. 99
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are three recommendations for NetBackup media server installation? (Choose three.)
A. You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B. At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C. All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D. You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
Answer: ACD

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NO.15 NetBackup is not able to communicate with a tape device after you have configured it.
What do you verify?
A. NetBackup is running as root.
B. Media Manager has been installed.
C. The operating system has inetd running.
D. The operating system has mapped the logical device to the physical device.
Answer: D

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NO.16 The latest Maintenance Pack has just been applied to your Microsoft Windows master server.
In which directory under <install dir>\ do you validate that it was installed successfully?
A. var
B. pack
C. patch
D. netbackup
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two ways can the UNIX client named clientA be configured to have the NetBackup master server
only back up clientA over its backup LAN (which is called clientA-bckup)? (Choose two.)
A. REQUIRED_INTERFACE = clientA-bckup
B. NETBACKUP_INTERFACE = clientA-bckup
C. Universal Settings > NetBackup Interface > clientA-bckup
D. Universal Settings > Required Network Interface > clientA-bckup
Answer: AD

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NO.18 Which script do you execute to uninstall a Maintenance Pack from a UNIX master server?
A. Vrts_pack.uninstall
B. Vrts_patch.uninstall
C. Vrts_pack.install and select Uninstall
D. Vrts_patch.install and select Uninstall
Answer: A

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NO.19 What are four valid versions of the Microsoft Windows OS for a NetBackup client installation?
(Choose four.)
A. Microsoft Windows 2003
B. Microsoft Windows XP
C. Microsoft Windows ME
D. Microsoft Windows 2000
E. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0
F. Microsoft Windows NT 3.5.1
Answer: ABDE

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NO.20 Which two actions do you perform prior to upgrading a media server from NetBackup 4.5 to 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. stop all bpsched processes
B. delete the existing bp.conf file
C. stop all of the NetBackup and Media Manager daemons
D. save copies of customized NetBackup scripts
Answer: CD

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NO.21 You have just installed a NetBackup 5.0 master server.
Which three NetBackup processes are running if the installation was successful? (Choose three.)
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.22 Click the Task button.
Place the steps in the recommended order for installing a master server.
GTPanel14|GTPanel11|
GTPanel1|GTPanel7|
GTPanel2|GTPanel18|
GTPanel3|GTPanel13|
GTPanel4|GTPanel8| 213v
473e85ba34d8 473e85ba4197
Answer:

NO.23 Given the following scenario about a policy with a single client:
Allow Multiple Data Streams is enabled.ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES is specified.Three tape drives are available
in the Storage Unit.Max Jobs Per Client is set to 2.The client specified has 5 local file systems with no
exclude list.
How many backup jobs will be "Active" (not queued) after the policy successfully initiates?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which three capabilities are available in the NetBackup 5.0 calendar-based scheduler? (Choose three.)
A. run a user backup job
B. run a NBU catalog backup
C. exclude a backup job on a specific date
D. run a backup job on the fourth Friday of the month
E. run a backup job on the last calendar day of the month
Answer: CDE

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NO.25 Which NetBackup 5.0 feature can you install during a Microsoft Windows 2003 media server custom
installation?
A. VERITAS Snapshot Provider (VSP)
B. VERITAS Vault Option
C. Active Directory Backup tool
D. Backup Exec Tape Reader for NetBackup
Answer: A

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NO.26 On which two operating systems can a remote client installation be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Windows 98 SP1
B. Microsoft Windows NT 4.0 SP6a
C. Microsoft Windows Me SP2
D. Microsoft Windows 2000 SP4
Answer: BD

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NO.27 Which command is used to install NetBackup on a UNIX client where rsh is NOT available?
A. bpcd_install
B. update_clients
C. bpclient_install
D. install_client_files
Answer: D

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NO.28 You are troubleshooting a robot or drive error and require additional Media Manager logs.
Which two debug directories can you create for robot or drive error troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. ltid
B. bpcd
C. reqlib
D. bpdm
Answer: AC

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NO.29 Which three commands can help resolve NetBackup network problems? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. bpverify
C. nslookup
D. nbclntcmd -ip
E. bpclntcmd -hn
Answer: ACE

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NO.30 Which two statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B. All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. The media servers' revision level may be one level higher than their respective clients' revision level.
D. The master server's revision level may be one level higher than the media server's revision level.
Answer: CD

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