2014年2月27日星期四

Guide de formation plus récente de HP HP0-085

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Code d'Examen: HP0-085
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

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NO.1 Which layered applications are included in the Enterprise Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A.Online JFS
B.Mirrordisk/UX
C.Data Protector
D.Workload Manager (WLM)
E.Enterprise Cluster Toolkit
Correct:A B

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NO.2 Which functions does the Support Management Station (SMS) support? (Select two.)
A.activates Instant Capacity (iCAP)
B.displays a log of events for troubleshooting
C.is a console to monitor Superdome servers
D.sets service level objectives (SLOs) for partitions
E.monitors resource usage and allocate resources for partitions
Correct:B C

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NO.3 Which devices does HP recommend for each hard partition? (Select two.)
A.DAT
B.DLT
C.LTO
D.DVD
E.CD-ROM
Correct:A D

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NO.4 The best performance is achieved when partitions have how many cells? (Select two.)
A.two
B.three
C.four
D.five
E.six
Correct:A C

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NO.5 How should memory be loaded on an sx2000-based Superdome server to obtain best
performance?
A.Use double data rate (DDR) DIMMs.
B.Populate one full quadrant at a time.
C.Populate the same echelons on each of the four quadrants.
D.Populate the A echelons on each of the cells, then populate the B echelons.
Correct:C

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NO.6 How does Pellston technology contribute to reliability and high availability of Montecito
processors?
A.It increases the bandwidth of the processor bus.
B.It removes hard cache errors by disabling the affected Level 3 (L3) cache line.
C.It measures processor power consumption and deactivates processors with irregular usage.
D.It measures processor power consumption and increases processor frequency for processors that
serve particular applications.
Correct:B

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NO.7 What information does a Guardian Service Processor (GSP) or Management Processor (MP)
provide about an HP Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.event logs
B.console logs
C.server power usage
D.processor utilization percentages
E.service level objectives (SLOs) for each partition
Correct:A B

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NO.8 How does Global Shared Memory increase the performance of an sx2000 Superdome server?
A.provides a redundant global clock source
B.provides console functionality for each cell in a Superdome server
C.provides direct remote access to the cell through the Management Processor (MP)
D.shifts networking between partitions to the backplane instead of through I/O subsystems
Correct:D

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NO.9 Which business values does HP Workload Manager (WLM) provide by allowing customers to
set service level objectives (SLOs)? (Select two.)
A.increase performance
B.efficient resource utilization
C.activate spare processor capacity
D.run multiple workloads on one system
E.maximum system uptime and availability
Correct:B D

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NO.10 Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A.Processors of different speeds can be mixed in the same cell.
B.Superdome servers support mixing chipsets if they are in different cells.
C.An HP Superdome server can support only one type of chipset at a time.
D.Intel Itanium 2 and mx2 processors can be mixed in the same Superdome server.
E.Processors on the same cell board can be running different firmware versions if they are in separate
hard partitions (nPars).
Correct:C D

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NO.11 Which HP Superdome servers support the PCI-X I/O chassis? (Select two.)
A.PA-8700
B.PA-8800
C.PA-9000
D.Itanium 2
E.PA-8600
Correct:B D

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NO.12 Which component of Superdome 32-way server is omitted from the Superdome16-way server's
backplane assembly?
A.crossbar links
B.local crossbar communication links
C.cell board connectors for cells 4 through 7
D.cell board connectors for cells 0 through 3
Correct:C

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NO.13 Which rule governs how you should load I/O cards in the IOX cabinet?
A.Fill the I/O chassis completely before installing I/O cards in the IOX cabinet.
B.After you have filled a spare I/O chassis, install redundant I/O devices in the IOX cabinet.
C.For high-availability installations, redundant I/O cards should be installed in the IOX cabinet.
D.Distribute I/O cards evenly between the I/O chassis and the IOX cabinet to maximize bandwidth.
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which resources are required for an nPar I/O chassis in an sx2000 Superdome server? (Select
two.)
A.Tape drive
B.Core I/O card
C.Instant Capacity (iCAP) cell
D.Card connected to boot media
E.Card connected to removable media
Correct:D E

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NO.15 What are the single points of failure in an sx1000 Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.I/O chassis
B.sx2000 chipset
C.crossbar backplane
D.power monitor module
E.Management Processor (MP)
Correct:C D

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NO.16 Which memory configuration does HP recommend for an sx1000 Superdome customer who
wants the most availability?
A.16 DIMMS (eight ranks)
B.32 DIMMS (sixteen ranks)
C.minimum of 4 DIMMS (two ranks)
D.minimum of 8 DIMMS (four ranks)
Correct:C

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NO.17 How can you set how much memory in an HP Superdome is cell local memory, and how much is
interleaved memory? (Select two.)
A.nPar commands
B.HP OpenView Operations
C.HP Partition Manager (parmgr)
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
E.These values are configured at the factory and cannot be changed without changing cell boards.
Correct:A C

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NO.18 In an sx2000 HP Superdome Server, what is the minimum number of DIMMs you need to install
to provide high availability in the memory subsystem?
A.two per cell
B.four per cell
C.eight per cell
D.sixteen per cell
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which configuration rule is true for an HP Integrity Superdome cell board memory?
A.DIMMS must all be the same size.
B.Memory must be added all at one time.
C.Individual DIMMS must be loaded in pairs.
D.Mixing DIMM size is allowed with some restrictions.
Correct:D

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NO.20 How many HP Superdome servers can you manage with one Support Management Station
(SMS)?
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-794
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing Windows Server 2003 on HP ProLiant Cluster Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Cluster.exe can be used to _______.
A.launch the Cluster Monitor utility
B.administer clusters
C.launch Microsoft Cluster Administrator
D.power down the cluster
Correct:B

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NO.2 Which SQL Server clustering requirement changed between SQL 7.0 and SQL 2000?
A.Only licenses for the first node in the cluster were required for SQL 7.0; all nodes must have licenses for
SQL 2000.
B.Multiple virtual SQL servers could not run on the same set of disks for SQL 7.0, but can run on the same
set of disks for SQL 2000.
C.Binaries are on the shared disk for SQL 7.0, but on the local disk for SQL 2000.
D.Microsoft Transaction Server and Microsoft Queue Manager are no longer included as components of
SQL 2000.
Correct:C

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NO.3 The ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA500 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of drive letters per cluster for shared drives with Microsoft
Windows Server 2003?
A.18
B.19
C.20
D.23
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which HP PCI-to-Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) uses the small form factor transceiver
connection and supports the MSA1000?
A.32-bit/33MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
B.64-bit/33MHz HBA using the Emulex chipset
C.64-bit/66MHz FCA-2101 HBA using the QLogic chipset
D.64-bit/66MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which tasks have been identified by HP as important when planning network capacity and the
graceful failover and failback of cluster resources and services? Ensure that: ______. Select TWO.
A.each cluster node has processors of sufficient speed to handle the maximum client load of the entire
cluster
B.the surviving node network speed and protocol will handle the maximum number of I/Os necessary to
support critical services
C.the throughput of the NIC on the surviving node is sufficient to handle the maximum network load for
peak load cluster services
D.each individual cluster node can handle the maximum number of clients that can attach to the cluster
E.the shared storage capacity is sufficient to handle the load of the entire cluster
Correct:B D

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NO.7 Which adjustments should be made to the network adapter that has been set to Internal Cluster
Communications Only? Select THREE.
A.Designate the adapter as the primary NIC in a fault-tolerant team.
B.Remove all protocols other than TCP/IP and disable the Media Sense feature.
C.Set the adapter to a specific speed of 10Mb/s or 100Mb/s.
D.Set the adapter to use NetBIOS.
E.Set the adapter duplex mode to half duplex.
F.Use the auto-detect setting on the network adapter for the private interconnect.
Correct:B C E

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NO.8 What is least likely to fail in a Windows Server 2003 network environment?
A.hardware
B.applications
C.operating system
D.operational issues
E.infrastructure (building, power, network)
Correct:A

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NO.9 The HP ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which description accurately depicts an HP Multi-Server Card?
A.It supports up to 64 network devices within a single UPS group and provides unattended, sequential
shutdown of every device in that group, regardless of the operating system.
B.It enables each load segment to function as a separate UPS with individual shutdown schedules and
load segment configurations.
C.It detects and warns users of power failures and manages a safe system shutdown before the backup
power supply is exhausted.
D.It allows for the safe installation of new batteries through the front panel, without powering down the
connected equipment.
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A24
Nom d'Examen: HP (NonStop Data Communication Basics)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the most efficient technology to use to create an Expand path between two NS-series servers
located in the same computer room?
A.X.25
B.SNA
C.Ethernet
D.ServerNet Cluster
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which SCF command is used to view Expand network throughput?
A.stats line $LHC565
B.stats path $LHC565
C.trace path $LHC565
D.status path $LHC565
Answer:B

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NO.3 How can you improve availability when configuring NonStop TCP/IPv6 with multiple failover pairs and
static routes?
A.Connect to a firewall that uses MAC to IP address filtering.
B.Select LIF pairs for the failover to be on the same adapters.
C.Add a copy of each route to one subnet in each failover pair.
D.Use Ethernet switches that have spanning tree protocol enabled.
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which SCF command is used to display all configured TCP/IP addresses?
A.info subnet $*.*
B.listdev tcpip $*.*
C.status subnet $*.*
D.listopens process $*.*
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which command allows you to view network-related events in the primary EMS log?
A.emscinfo $0, detail
B.emsdist type P, textout [#myterm]
C.emsdist type P, collector $0, textout [#myterm]
D.emsdist type P, collector $ZLOG, textout [#myterm]
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which SCF command is used to show process names related to a TCP/IP process?
A.show process $ZTC0
B.status process $ZTC0
C.listopens process $ZTC0
D.info process $ZTC0, detail
Answer:C

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NO.7 An OLTP system processes 100 transactions per second with an average transaction size of 1000 bytes.
To replicate all transactions to a disaster recovery system, what is the minimum bandwidth required
between the systems?
A.1Gbps
B.9.6Kbps
C.64Kbps
D.4Mbps
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which product allows a single IP address to be hosted in all processors in a NonStop server?
A.Telserv
B.Scalable IP (SIP)
C.NonStop TCP/IP
D.NonStop TCP/IPv6
Answer:D

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NO.9 Which event is most likely to interrupt availability in a satellite connected network?
A.heavy rain
B.decreased ozone levels
C.direct sunlight on the uplink
D.increased environmental noise
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which LAN-based technology provides flexible connectivity of desktop and portable devices in an
office environment?
A.CAT3 cabling
B.wireless LAN
C.fiber optic LAN
D.10BaseT cabling
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y19
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Accelerated ASE Mobility)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 You must configure Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) on two ProCurve 8212zl switches
and four 5406zl switches. Which configuration is necessary to ensure that all of the switches join
the same MST region?
A.The switches must have identical Port Priorities for shared links in each MST instance.
B.Bridge Priorities on all switches must be configured so that each MST instance has a different Root
Bridge.
C.All switch-to-switch links in each MST instance must be tagged members of all user VLANs.
D.The switches must be configured with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance
mappings.
Correct:D

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NO.2 Port C1 on a ProCurve Switch 5412zl is a tagged member of VLAN 50 and an untagged member
of VLAN 1. Port C2 and port C3 are at default VLAN settings. What is the effect of the following
command entered at the CLI? 5412zl(config)# trunk c1-c3 trk1
A.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1, but port C1 is not included.
B.The trunk is not defined, because the ports' VLAN memberships do not match.
C.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1 and a tagged member of VLAN 50.
D.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1 but is not a member of VLAN 50.
Correct:D

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NO.3 You configured VLAN 10 and VLAN 24 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl-48G. The network servers
reside in VLAN 10, which has an IP address range of 10.1.10.0/24. Network clients reside in VLAN
24, which has an IP address range of 10.1.24.0/24. You configure an ACL with these entries and
apply it statically to ports in VLAN 24: permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq http permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0
10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq telnet What is the effect of these ACLs on the clients located in
VLAN 24?
A.They would have no access at all, because the ACL is misconfigured.
B.They would be allowed only FTP, HTTP, and Telnet access to 10.1.10.10, but no access anywhere else.
C.They would be allowed only FTP, HTTP, and Telnet access to 10.1.10.10, but full access to everything
else in the 10.1.10.0 subnet.
D.They could not access anything in the 10.1.10.0 subnet, because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which part of the multicast address range is reserved for applications that will remain within an
enterprise intranet?
A.Internetwork Control Block
B.AD-HOC Block
C.Administratively Scoped Address Block
D.Local Network Control Block
Correct:C

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NO.5 You connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to a port on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl.
The port is a member of a voice VLAN and also requires 802.1X authentication. How will
LLDP-MED and 802.1X interact?
A.The switch will exempt the phone from the 802.1X requirement after confirming its LLDP-MED
information.
B.The switch will submit the phone's authentication credentials to a RADIUS server after the devices
exchange LLDP-MED information.
C.The switch will permit LLDP-MED communication with the phone after authentication is complete.
D.The switch will use information from the phone's first LLDP-MED frame to submit its authentication
credentials.
Correct:C

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NO.6 You must configure a ProCurve Switch 8212zl to be the Backup router for a VRID associated
with VLAN 10. What must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID on this router?
A.It must be an address assigned to a multi-netted interface.
B.It must be an address that is not assigned to any interface on either router.
C.It must match the Backup router's address for the VLAN 10 interface.
D.It must match the Owner router's address for the VLAN 10 interface.
Correct:D

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NO.7 You are planning a network upgrade at a small company. During a meeting, you learn that the
customer will install VoIP telephones that set Layer 2 priority markers for allvoice traffic, and the
VoIP traffic will not cross any routed links. What is necessary to ensure that ProVision ASIC
switches maintain the priorities set by the phones? (Selecttwo.)
A.LLDP-MED for all voice VLANs
B.an IEEE 802.1p-to-DSCP map for voice traffic
C.port-based priorities for ports connected to phones
D.default QoS settings
E.tagged links for all voice VLAN traffic
Correct:D E

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button. What does this output from the show ip ospf neighbor command
indicate about the OSPF neighbor relationship between this router and the router with ID 10.3.0.1?
A.They are in different OSPF areas.
B.They have not formed an adjacency.
C.They are configured with different OSPF versions.
D.They are not eligible to be elected DR or BDR.
Correct:B

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NO.9 On a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, which feature must be enabled before you can enable VRRP?
A.MSTP
B.IP routing
C.IP multicast
D.RIP
Correct:B

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button. What is the role of this Switch 3500yl in the OSPF routing domain?
A.ASBR
B.virtual router
C.ABR
D.internal router
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P19
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX High Availability Using Serviceguard v18)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX system? (Select four.)
A. hard disk drive
B. operating system
C. system administrator
D. redundant power supply
E. CPU on a Uniprocessor system
F. multi-port network interface card
G. alternate link to a disk in a shared volume group
Answer: ABEF

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NO.2 What are the advantages with respect to application availability for a customer using Serviceguard in
an HA environment? (Select two.)
A. Application database corruptions will be minimized.
B. An upgrade of the operating system will only require a package switch.
C. A power outage in the customer's computer room will not affect the users.
D. Rolling upgrades of the application can be performed in a Serviceguard environment.
E. A failure in a redundant power supply will only cause a package switch to the adoptive node.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Consider the following entry in the /etc/rc.config.d/cmcluster file.
AUTOSTART_CMCLD=1
Which parameter in the cluster ascii file is affected by this entry?
A. CMCLD_TIMEOUT
B. CMCLD_RUN_START
C. AUTOSTART_CMCLD
D. AUTOSTART_TIMEOUT
E. HEARTBEAT_INTERVAL
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are advantages of RAC cluster? (Select three.)
A. increases user scalability
B. increases database security
C. supports larger database size
D. increases hardware scalability
E. increases database availability
F. increases application scalability
G. decreases package failover time
Answer: DEF

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the cluster interconnect in a Serviceguard extension for Oracle RAC
implementation? (Select two.)
A. Nodes can use it for cluster heartbeat traffic.
B. Nodes coordinate the shared storage status.
C. Oracle single instances coordinate their online/offline status.
D. Oracle RAC instances coordinate the consistency between their Oracle buffer cache.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 What are the main features of OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion)? (Select two.)
A. ability to replace a cell board on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
B. ability to repair a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
C. ability to online replace a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
D. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
E. ability to online replace an HP-UX system that supports OL* while it is configured in a Serviceguard
cluster
F. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) LAN card and afterwards to online add a PCI(-X) FC HBA in the same
PCI(-X) slot on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
Answer: CD

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NO.7 A customer has a 2-node HP Serviceguard cluster running a mission critical Oracle database and a
financial application. At the end of each month the server utilization spikes with no idle CPU resources
and there is a need for additional capacity.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment offering provides additional capacity and is best in this situation?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Global Workload Manager (gWLM)
E. Temporary Instant Capacity (TiCAP)
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which situations does Serviceguard provide high availability solutions for? (Select two.)
A. LAN card failure
B. application failure
C. client subnet goes down
D. poor application performance
E. failure of one of the LUN paths to shared storage
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Which application templates are included in the Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit (ECMT)? (Select
four.)
A. NFS
B. SAP
C. SAPDB
D. HP Tomcat
E. HP Apache
F. HP CIFS/9000
G. Oracle 9i and 10g
Answer: DEFG

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NO.10 In which situations can a local high availability solution prevent unplanned downtime? (Select two.)
A. An operator accidentially reboots a cluster node.
B. The shared storage component looses A/C power and goes down.
C. A complete data center goes down because of an environmental disaster.
D. The network communication between the cluster nodes is permanently interrupted.
E. The clustered application database becomes corrupted by installation of an application patch.
Answer: AD

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NO.11 An e-ticketing application based on Apache webserver for a busy tourist market experiences failures
during peak season, resulting in loss of revenues.
Which product combination implements a solution that improves availability of the e-ticketing application?
(Select two.)
A. HP Serviceguard
B. Continental Clusters
C. HP Serviceguard Extension for SAP
D. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
E. HP Serviceguard Extension for RAC
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which statement is correct concerning the difference between a local Serviceguard cluster and an
extended distance cluster (also known as a campus cluster)?
A. An extended distance cluster provides disaster tolerance across two data centers located on different
continents.
B. An extended distance cluster solution typically requires a physical data replication mechanism between
high end storage arrays.
C. An extended distance cluster solution typically uses host based disk mirroring between two computer
rooms in an IT environment.
D. An extended distance cluster is a separate product installation to implement High Availability between
two computer rooms in a IT environment.
Answer: C

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NO.13 In the context of high availability, which statements are true regarding split-brain syndrome? (Select
two.)
A. It can occur on a 2-node cluster.
B. It can occur on a 3-node cluster.
C. It allows different applications to simulatneously access the same disk.
D. It allows different partitions to access the same disk without knowledge of each other.
E. It is caused when two clusters initiate an application that accesses the same disk simultaneously.
F. It is caused when two equal size sub-clusters form from a single cluster without knowledge of each
other.
Answer: AF

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NO.14 Which statements are true regarding High Availability (HA)? (Select three.)
A. Downtime is any amount of time when the application is unavailable (planned or unplanned).
B. HA systems provide a disaster tolerant solution that allows recovery from the loss of an entire data
center.
C. Unplanned downtime is be caused by a failure of a non-redundant hardware component on a cluster
node.
D. Metrocluster and Extended Campus Cluster solutions provide the same level of protection as a local
HA solution in case of environmental disasters.
E. HA is a combination of environmental, process, software, and computing hardware enhancements that
maximize the time that the application and system are available.
F. Highly available systems typically contain data redundancy through mirroring or RAID, some kind of
backup system hardware, power outage protection, and multiple LANs.
Answer: AEF

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NO.15 Which products offer a solution to protect from failure of a complete data center? (Select three.)
A. Metrocluster
B. Serviceguard
C. Continentalclusters
D. Extended Campus Cluster
E. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
Answer: ACD

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NO.16 When a Serviceguard package fails over in a highly available vPar environment, Workload Manager
(WLM) integrates with Serviceguard and disaster tolerant solutions by doing which process?
A. WLM creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
B. cmcld creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
C. WLM moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
D. cmcld moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
E. WLM can move a Serviceguard package from one virtual partition to another.
Answer: C

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NO.17 In a Serviceguard implementation for concurrent instances of an Oracle RAC Database, which type of
shared storage management can be used on all nodes in the cluster? (Select three.)
A. Cluster File System (CFS)
B. Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Shared Logical Volume Manager (SLVM)
E. Standard Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
F. Enterprise Logical Volume Manager (ELVM)
G. Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Answer: ADG

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NO.18 What is the function of the lock disk or Quorum server in a Serviceguard cluster?
A. prevents split brain syndrome
B. determines which node becomes the cluster coordinator
C. ensures that quorum is present the entire time the cluster is up
D. keeps a record of volume groups that are locked in exclusive mode
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which failure scenarios are transparent to application users when the application is running as a
Serviceguard package? (Select two.)
A. A LAN interface fails on a node where no package is running.
B. A complete power outage in the computer room where the cluster is located.
C. A redundant power supply fails in the cluster node running the application package.
D. Manual application package switch because of planned downtime on the cluster node.
E. The cluster node running the application package crashes because of a memory multibit error.
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Your customer wants you to design an HA solution with HP-UX and Serviceguard that runs the
customer's Business Critical SAP production system as Serviceguard package, pkgA, and the customer's
Development SAP system as Serviceguard package, pkgB.
You design two vPars (vpar1 and vpar2) on serverA and two vPars (vpar3 and vpar4) on serverB.
What is a good design for this cluster to provide the maximum high availability? (Select two.)
A. Cluster vpar1 and vpar2 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
B. Cluster vpar1 and vpar3 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
C. Cluster vpar2 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
D. Cluster vpar3 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
Answer: BC

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NO.21 When implementing a legacy package utilizing application monitoring, which variable in the package
control script will point to the monitor script?
A. service_cmd
B. SERVICE_CMD
C. MONITOR_CMD
D. MONITOR_NAME
Answer: B

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NO.22 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)?
A. mean interval of time to resume a service after a failure
B. mean time a service engineer needs to repair a failed server
C. mean interval of time when the system provides service without fault
D. mean time a service engineer needs to replace a server after a failure
E. mean time a service engineer needs to arrive at the site of a failed server
Answer: A

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NO.23 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX environment? (Select two.)
A. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard over two physical
nodes
B. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
C. cellboard on a partioned node with two nPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
D. cellboard on a single-nPar node with two vPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
Answer: BD

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NO.24 You are asked by your management team to do a presentation and explain why your IT department
should go with the SGeRAC solution instead of the standard single-instance Oracle implementation with
Serviceguard.
Which benefits should you present? (Select two.)
A. reduces the overall cost
B. increases the security level
C. provides easier cluster management
D. reduces recovery time of a large database
E. provides the ability to add more nodes to the cluster on the fly
F. increases processing power without the need to administer separate databases
Answer: DF

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NO.25 What does OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion) provide?
A. online replacement, addtion, and deletion of vPARs
B. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards
C. online replacement, addition, and deletion of cell boards in cell based systems
D. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards and core I/O cards
Answer: B

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NO.26 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)?
A. mean time to restart a failed service
B. mean time to repair a server after a failure
C. mean time to restart a server after a failure
D. mean time a system provides service without failure
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which configurations are valid for a Serviceguard environment in combination with Integrity Virtual
machines? (Select two.)
A. Configuration 1
B. Configuration 2
C. Configuration 3
D. Configuration 4
Answer: AB

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NO.28 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the cmviewcl output, which statement is correct?
A. A failure of ora_lsnr will cause alien_pkg to failover.
B. A single failure of oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
C. The subnet 192.168.1.0 going down will cause alien_pkg to failover.
D. A failure of either ora_lsnr or oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which components are considered potential single points of failure within a single HP-UX server?
(Select four.)
A. SAN
B. memory
C. backplane
D. DVD drive
E. LAN interfaces
F. mirrored root disks
G. system adminstrator
H. redundant power supply
I. Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter
Answer: BCEI

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NO.30 Which statements are true regarding Serviceguard Manager version 5.01? (Select three.)
A. Serviceguard Manager is a graphical user interface for the Serviceguard product.
B. With Serviceguard Manager you can monitor, administer, and configure clusters managed by
Serviceguard.
C. With Serviceguard Manager you can run a multinode cluster which consists of both HP-UX and Linux
nodes.
D. With Serviceguard Manager you can change package-switching and node-switching flags for failover
packages.
E. With Serviceguard Manager you can install Serviceguard software product on hosts managed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM).
Answer: ABD

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J24
Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

HP0-J24 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP0-J24.html

NO.1 Given the following backup tape rotation scheme:
Incremental backup daily from Monday to Friday using 1 tape
Full backup every Saturday using 1 tape
Tape rotation rule: GFS scheme
Tape retention rule: Son tape overwrites weekly; Father tape only used every Saturday
A month is calculated as 5 Saturdays.
How many tapes are required to run one month of backups?
A.6
B.11
C.12
D.15
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are advantages of using HP StorageWorks D2D Backup Systems over traditional backup that
uses tape media? (Select two.)
A.It provides data protection.
B.It is a scalable Enterprise SAN solution.
C.It enables non-disruptive scalability using Capacity on Demand.
D.It is the safest way to store data for the long term.
E.It provides online access to backup data.
Answer: AE

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NO.3 Which two-stage backup configuration would you recommend to SMB customers who want a solution
that is easy to install and manage?
A.Mezzanine Backup Solution
B.VLS1000i with MSL2024 Tape Libraries
C.MSA2000fc with MSL2048 Tape Libraries
D.D2D Backup System
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are required to cascade 2 units of HP B-Series 8Gb/s SAN switches using a 50/125 micron LC-LC
fiber optic cable. The remote SAN switch is connected to an MSL Tape Library. What is the maximum
cable length possible?
A.21 meters
B.150 meters
C.300 meters
D.500 meters
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a benefit of a disk-to-disk-to-tape backup configuration in an Enterprise Backup Solution?
A.The backup data are copied to a host-managed, low-cost disk to facilitate restores and enable short
term archival storage.
B.Because the speed of staging disks is much higher than the tape speed, the window for
disk-to-disk-to-tape backup shrinks dramatically.
C.All file transfers are controlled by the storage system software, and transfer to tape occurs through
servers that send the data.
D.The backup application backs up the primary disk data to the staging disk, allowing for quick restores of
single files.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the following third-party copy sequence:
Step 1 Server initiates backup by sending list of blocks to be backed up to the third-party device.
Step 2 Third-party device issues commands to the external disk subsystem.
Step 3
Step 4External disk subsystem sends data to tape library.
Which action is taken in Step 3?
A.Fibre Channel loop performs LIP.
B.Server IP address is changed.
C.Snapshot is taken.
D.Server backup agent is stopped.
Answer: C

HP   HP0-J24 examen   HP0-J24

NO.7 What is the benefit of having an SDLT tape drive that uses a linear recording technology where the tape
media is moved past the stationary read/write heads?
A.Data stripes that are recorded in vertical format over constant tape media speed provide reliable
recording.
B.Higher data density is recorded in the media in diagonal stripes format.
C.It is more reliable due to fewer moving parts and longer lifespan for the tape media.
D.A single media roller provides better tape tension during reading or writing.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Given a drive with the following features:
optical servo tracking
magneto-resistive cluster heads
fewer roller guides than previous generation drive
Which type of drive correctly matches the description?
A.AIT
B.DAT
C.SDLT
D.LTO
Answer: C

HP examen   HP0-J24   HP0-J24   HP0-J24   HP0-J24

NO.9 Which HP StorageWorks systems can use zero downtime backup technology and remote replications
solutions? (Select two.)
A.VLS Series
B.EML Series
C.XP Series
D.MSA2000 Series
E.EVA Series
Answer: CE

HP   HP0-J24   certification HP0-J24   certification HP0-J24

NO.10 Which elements form the backup and restore basics? (Select four.)
A.backup strategies
B.tape rotation scheme
C.journal replication
D.agents selection
E.type of data to backup
F.remote replication
G.correct tape devices
Answer: ABEG

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M26
Nom d'Examen: HP (Infrastructure Monitoring using HP SiteScope v9)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

HP0-M26 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP0-M26.html

NO.1 How do you use the SiteScope Configuration tool?
A. Disable pop-up warnings, change the default interface port, and change the default installation
directory.
B. Change the default SiteScope interface port, import/export group files and templates, and then alter the
Heap parameters.
C. Edit the SiteScope interface port, change operating system settings to allow for better SiteScope
performance, export and import user data.
D. Edit the SiteScope interface port and protocol, change the default installation directory and change the
default administrator access credentials.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which SiteScope term refers to a collected value, performance parameter, URL, or similar system
response?
A. Metric
B. Monitor
C. Threshold
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are pre-requisites for tuning SiteScope? (Select two.)
A. SiteScope must be installed as a standalone server.
B. All instances of SiteScope must run on the same server.
C. Disconnect SiteScope from the network being monitored.
D. A single instance of SiteScope must be running on a server.
E. SiteScope must be installed on the server that is to be monitored.
Answer: AD

HP   HP0-M26   HP0-M26

NO.4 Click Next or More to continue.
<_p><11>pnl21|pnl6|
<_p><11>pnl22|pnl2|
<_p><11>pnl23|pnl1|
<_p><10>pnl5|pnl3|
492dd584670f? 492dd585170b
Click the Task button.
Arrange the steps of the monitoring process in the correct sequence.
Answer:

NO.5 With which HP Software Products can SiteScope be integrated? (Select three.)
A. HP LoadRunner
B. HP Asset Manager
C. HP Software as a Service
D. HP Business Availability Center
E. HP Project and Portfolio Management
F. HP Change and Configuration Manager
Answer: ACD

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HP HP2-037, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: HP2-037
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP LaserJet Foundations)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

HP2-037 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP2-037.html

NO.1 You have been tasked with determining the cause of a paper jam in a laser printer. You
have determined the location of the jam. You have checked the sensor flags in the paper
path, and you have checked the condition of the rollers in the paper path. What could still
be a cause of the jam?
A. The transfer belt is dirty.
B. The toner is low.
C. The fuser is at an incorrect temperature.
D. The media being used is outside the specifications for this printer.
Answer: D

HP examen   HP2-037   HP2-037

NO.2 The HP born-on date (Service ID) appears as a five digit number in the format YYDDD,
where YY represents the year of manufacture and DDD the month and day. Using the
standard formula, what is the born-on date represented by 11280?
A. December 30, 1991
B. January 28, 2001
C. October 10,2001
D. December 30, 1996
Answer: C

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NO.3 What type of control panel message informs you of data and print errors?
A. warning messages
B. error messages
C. critical error messages
D. service messages
Answer: B

certification HP   HP2-037   HP2-037

NO.4 You are troubleshooting a non-functional printer and have identified and analyzed all
symptoms associated with the particular problem. What should your next course of action
be?
A. develop an action plan for problem resolution
B. determine and prioritize possible causes
C. narrow the symptoms to one critical area
D. identify a possible solution
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which printer component informs the engine controller that the paper is moving through
the printer?
A. pressure sensors
B. photosensors
C. pickup rollers
D. registration rollers
Answer: B

HP examen   HP2-037   certification HP2-037

NO.6 Test has purchased a < memory DIMM to upgrade a Color LaserJet 4600
printer. The printer gives a 53.10.xx error after the memory is upgraded to the printer.
What needs to be done to resolve the issue?
A. upgrade is not possible
B. the printer memory slot is faulty, the formatter needs replacement
C. the memory has been installed in the wrong slot, memory will need to reinstalled
properly
D. the memory doesn't meet HP standard, different memory will need to be purchased
Answer: D

HP examen   HP2-037 examen   HP2-037   HP2-037   HP2-037

NO.7 Test has a LaserJet 4345 MFP printer, and wants to configure the 'Send To
Folder' option. He has an expired version of Digital Sending Software. How can the
customer configure the 'Send To Folder' option?
A. the printer driver
B. EWS (Embedded Web Server)
C. WJA (Web Jet Administrator)
D. the control panel
Answer: C

certification HP   HP2-037 examen   certification HP2-037

NO.8 Which functions are available on a multi-function printer? Select THREE.
A. email capability
B. color separation
C. digital enhancement
D. thermal imaging
E. network printing
F. faxing
Answer: A,E,F

HP   HP2-037   certification HP2-037

NO.9 Test has a LaserJet 4100 MFP, in which there was a failed hard disk drive
(HDD). The faulty 20GB HDD has been replaced with a new 40GB HDD. Now the
customer is unable to find the 'Send' option under 'Configure Device' on the control
panel. What is the issue?
A. firmware needs to be downloaded on to the HDD
B. the sending option is never available in the control panel
C. the 40GB HDD is not compatible and needs a 20GB HDD
D. the HDD is not initialized
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is one possible cause of consistently smeared print output?
A. paper moisture content too high
B. paper moisture content too low
C. paper finish too smooth or basis weight too heavy
D. paper finish too rough or basis weight too light
Answer: C

HP   HP2-037 examen   HP2-037

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J22
Nom d'Examen: HP (Designing HP StorageWorks Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 187 Q&As

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HP0-J22 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP0-J22.html

NO.1 A customer has a heterogeneous environment consisting of AIX and Solaris servers with HP
StorageWorks disk arrays. Which software products can be used to implement an extended application
failover solution? (Select two.)
A.ServiceGuard
B.Continuous Access XP
C.LUN Security XP Extension
D.Metro Cluster
E.Cluster Extension XP
Answer:B E

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NO.2 A customer is concerned about growth of the company's HP Data Protector Software database. Which
tool will address this concern?
A.HP StorageWorks sizing tool
B.HP Data Protector database sizer
C.Database Configuration Worksheet
D.Capacity Planning Spreadsheet
Answer:D

HP   HP0-J22   HP0-J22

NO.3 Which software solution is used to provision storage on the EVA4400?
A.Virtual Storage Provisioner
B.Dynamic Capacity Management
C.Virtual Replication Manager
D.Storage Presentation Manager
Answer:B

HP   certification HP0-J22   certification HP0-J22   certification HP0-J22

NO.4 An additional spare disk is recommended for which RAID level in an HP StorageWorks XP Disk Array?
A.2D + 2D
B.3D + 3P
C.4D + 4D
D.7D + 1P
Answer:D

HP   HP0-J22   HP0-J22   certification HP0-J22   HP0-J22 examen

NO.5 You are designing an upgrade of an existing HP Data Protector Software environment. Which Data
Protector command line utility can you use to collect system and Data Protector configuration data for this
environment?
A.omnienv
B.omnicc -info
C.get_info
D.capture configuration
Answer:C

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NO.6 What is required to allow an HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array to become a unified block and
file storage solution, serving both block and file data concurrently with high availability and scalable
performance?
A.EVA File Services
B.EVA iSCSI Connectivity Option
C.VLS EVA Gateway
D.Multi-Protocol EVA Gateway
Answer:A

HP   certification HP0-J22   HP0-J22 examen

NO.7 Which administration, configuration, and management tool is used with the HP MSA2000 Storage Array?
A.MSA Insight Configurator
B.Command View MSA
C.Storage Management Utility
D.Array Configuration Utility
Answer:C

HP examen   HP0-J22 examen   HP0-J22 examen   HP0-J22

NO.8 Click the Task button. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer
environment and target market. Answer & Explanation Correct Answer Explanations No more information
available
Answer:

NO.9 Which statement is correct regarding an All-in-One SB600c used for file services (CIFS and NFS)?
A.The All-in-One SB600c is an appliance and can only host data for databases.
B.The All-in-One SB600c can only host data for customer-developed applications if the iSCSI target
functionality is used.
C.The All-in-One SB600c requires two dual-core CPUs to provide CIFS and NAS at the same time.
D.The All-in-One SB600c is designed to support multiprotocol file services.
Answer:D

HP   HP0-J22   HP0-J22 examen   HP0-J22

NO.10 Click the Exhibit button. What is the maximum number of EVA LUNs that can be presented to an HBA
target with multi-path I/O (MPIO) in an AIX environment?
A.32
B.64
C.127
D.255
Answer:D

HP   HP0-J22   HP0-J22   HP0-J22 examen   HP0-J22

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L'avènement de la certification HP pratique d'examen HP0-P13 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P13
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Design of HP Integrity Server Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

HP0-P13 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/HP0-P13.html

NO.1 When you are designing an HP Integrity solution, which HP tool should you use to determine power
consumption?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. sizing tool
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
D. power calculator
Answer: D

HP   HP0-P13 examen   certification HP0-P13

NO.2 Which applications will benefit most from porting from 32-bit to Itanium 64-bit processors? (Select two.)
A. web services
B. floating point calculations
C. very large databases
D. online transaction processing
E. mission-critical applications
Answer: BC

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NO.3 Which high-availability feature keeps a system running in spite of a multi-bit DRAM error?
A. chip spare like memory
B. memory scrubbing
C. dynamic page deallocation
D. address control parity
Answer: A

HP   HP0-P13   HP0-P13 examen   certification HP0-P13

NO.4 Which statements are true about memory in cell-based Integrity systems? (Select two.)
A. Memory modules of different sizes can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Cell local memory can be configured as a percentage of memory.
C. Cell local memory is faster than interleaved memory for providing access to memory on other cells in
the system.
D. Memory must be installed in dual quads of the same size memory modules.
E. Cell-based systems require cell local memory.
Answer: AB

HP   HP0-P13   HP0-P13   HP0-P13 examen

NO.5 A customer is currently using 32-bit processors in their data center. At present, they are not running out
of disk space for their applications, and they have not had to create partitions for their databases.
What advantage can this customer gain by switching to 64-bit computing? (Select two.)
A. greater security and availability
B. reduced diskspace costs
C. faster response times for queries
D. fewer processors required for tasks
E. potential reduction in licensing costs
Answer: DE

HP examen   HP0-P13   HP0-P13

NO.6 Which statement is true regarding I/O technologies in HP Integrity servers?
A. PCIe uses a dual simplex point-to-point topology to move data.
B. PCI-X and PCIe support complex routing.
C. PCI, PCI-X, and PCIe use parallel buses.
D. PCI and PCIe are connector-compatible.
Answer: A

HP   HP0-P13   HP0-P13   HP0-P13

NO.7 Which feature of an HP Integrity cell-based server enables you to replace a failed processor on one
partition, while the other partition is running?
A. dynamic processor deallocation
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. electrically isolated partitions
D. hot plug processors
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your customer wants to permanently move processor usage rights within a server. Which type of
licensing is needed?
A. TiCAP
B. vPar
C. GiCAP
D. iCAP
Answer: D

HP examen   HP0-P13 examen   HP0-P13   HP0-P13 examen

NO.9 Which functions are provided by Integrity Virtual Machines but not by hard partitions?
A. failover protection for high availability
B. ability to run multiple operating systems simultaneously
C. electrical isolation
D. dynamic resource allocation
Answer: D

HP   certification HP0-P13   HP0-P13   HP0-P13 examen

NO.10 Which feature of the HP sx2000 chipset makes the Integrity rx7640 server a better choice for high
availability than the rx6600?
A. double chip spare
B. Hyper-Threading
C. link self-healing
D. Dynamic Processor Resilience
Answer: C

HP   HP0-P13 examen   HP0-P13   HP0-P13

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